Boiler and indirect water heater settings

Old 11-04-13, 07:49 AM
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Location: USA
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Is this always the case?
I suppose it would be possible to make an argument for 'warm start' with an indirect in some cases. It might make sense for example if the boiler and/or indirect were installed in an unheated area and the users were experiencing long delays in getting hot water into the home...

What would you consider for an indirect and boiler to be "properly installed?"
Installed according to generally accepted standards and practices, and in accordance with manufacturers recommendations.

I know, that's a generic statement... but the best I can do without writing another plumbing handbook.

I'm still confused on this condensation thing
Ask questions... we'll try to help.
Old 11-04-13, 09:06 AM
Join Date: Nov 2013
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here goes...

Peerless, Model WBxx (circa 1994). 4 zones, one of which is now DHW. Installed in basement. Tankless is disconnected, and the cold water is plumbed straight into the HW tank. My heating guy convinced me that I don't need warm start now, and my aquastat is programmed for cold start (ie. it's programmed with no low limit).

I brought up condensation, but he said it was not an issue. After an extended conversation, I was convinced. Now I'm not sure if I am, or if he talked me into it.

So, I guess my question is: What situation, if there is one, would cause a condensation issue?

Much appreciated.

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