General gas piping question


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Old 08-20-07, 01:49 PM
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General gas piping question

So, I understand the concept of sizing gas piping to the appliance, depending on the amount of gas required, and the length of the run. Therefore I understand why the plumber installed 1.25" black pipe coming into the house, since it has to feed the water heater, furnace, dryer, range, etc.

But my question is this - why was the 1.25" pipe run past the tees to the other appliances, all the way to within about 12" of the furnace, then adapted there down to 1/2" pipe? Why wasn't it adapted at the tee? It's only about 10' of pipe, so it's not a length issue.

Since it was installed, I've seen similar installations elsewhere too.

What's the point? Am I missing something?

Thanks,
Mike
 
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Old 08-20-07, 03:21 PM
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Mike. He ran past, or through the tees to the other appliances to keep the volume up to within 12 inches of its end. And the furnace will probably be your largest hog, needing all the volume it could produce.
 
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Old 08-20-07, 05:31 PM
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i like it when i see something like this. just because you need at least a 3/4" line, for example, doesn't mean you can't have a larger one. for most plumbing issues (not all) this is fine. this might come in handy if you decide to upgrade to a tankless water heater or a larger oven/cooktop in the future. it doesn't add much to the cost of construction and could be well worth it down the road.
 
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Old 08-20-07, 08:39 PM
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So when running piping, is it generally recommended to upsize the pipe even though it's 'overkill'? I understand the idea of future upgrades, but it doesn't seem like it's much worth it for an extra 10-20 feet.

Just trying to understand for the next project I take on.

Thanks for the responses!

-Mike
 
 

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